Analytic Number Theory/Tools from complex analysis

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Infinite products

Lemma 5.1 (Convergence of real products):

Let (an)n be such that

n=1|an|

converges absolutely. Then if n:|bn||an|,

n=1(1+bn)

converges.

Proof: Without loss of generality, we assume |bn|<12 for all n.

Denote

pn:=j=1n(1+bn).

Then we have

qn:=log(pn)=j=1nlog(1+bj).

We now apply the Taylor formula of first degree with Lagrange remainder to log(1+x) at 1 to obtain for |x|<12

log(1+x)=12x12(1+ξ)2x2, ξ(12,32).

Hence, we have for |x|<12

|log(1+x)||12x12(1+ξ)2x2||x|, ξ(12,32).

Hence, |log(1+bj)||bj| and thus we obtain the (even absolute) convergence of the qn; thus, by the continuity of the exponential, also the pn converge.

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Proof:

We define

pn:=j=1n(1+sj), qn:=j=1n(1+aj). We note that
|pn|j=1n(1+|sj|)qn.

Without loss of generality we may assume that all the products are nonzero; else we have immediate convergence (to zero).

We now prove that (pn)n is a Cauchy sequence. Indeed, we have

|pn+kpn|=|pn||pn+kpn1|

and furthermore

|pn+kpn1|=|sn+1++sn+k+sn+1sn+2++sn+1sn+k||sn+1|++|sn+k|+|sn+1sn+2|++|sn+1sn+k|an+1++an+k+an+1an+2++an+1an+k=qn+kqn1=|qn+kqn1|

and therefore

|pn+kpn|=|pn||pn+kpn1||qn||qn+kqn1|=|qn+kqn|.

Since qnq, it is a Cauchy sequence, and thus, by the above inequality, so is (pn)n. The last claim of the theorem follows by taking k in the above inequality.

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Proof 1:

We prove the theorem using lemma 5.1 and the comparison test.

Indeed, by lemma 5.1 the product

j=1(1+|aj|)

converges. Hence by theorem 5.2, we obtain convergence and the desired inequality.

Proof 2 (without the inequality):

We prove the theorem except the inequality at the end from lemma 5.1 and by using the Taylor formula on arcsin.

We define pn:=j=1n(1+sj). Then since every complex number satisfies z=|z|eiarg(z), we need to prove the convergence of the sequences (|pn|)n and (arg(pn))n.

For the first sequence, we note that the convergence of (|pn|)n is equivalent to the convergence of (|pn|2)n. Now for each k

|1+

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Proof:

First, we note that g(z) is well-defined for each z due to theorem 5.2. In order to prove that the product is holomorphic, we use the fact from complex analysis that if a sequence of functions converging locally uniformly to another function has infinitely many holomorphic members, then the limit is holomorphic as well. Indeed, we note by the inequality in theorem 5.3, that we are given uniform convergence. Hence, the theorem follows.

Exercises

The Weierstraß factorisation

The following lemma is of great importance, since we can deduce three important theorems from it:

  1. The existence of holomorphic functions with prescribed zeroes
  2. The Weierstraß factorisation theorem (a way to write any holomorphic function made up from linear factors and the exponential)
  3. The Mittag-Leffler theorem (named after Gösta Mittag-Leffler (one guy))

Lemma 5.5:

Let (an)n be a sequence of complex numbers such that

0<|a1||a2|

and

limn|an|=.

Then the function

n=1(1san)ek=1n1(1)k+1skkank

has exactly the zeroes {an|n} in the correct multiplicity.

Proof:

Define for each n

un(s):=(1san)ek=1n1(1)k+1skkank.

Our plan is to prove that n=1un(s) converges uniformly in every subcircle of the circle of radius |aN| for every N. Since the function zlog(1+z) is holomorphic in a unit ball around zero, it is equal to its Taylor series there, i.e.

log(1+z)=k=1zkk.

Hence, for |s|<|an|

log(un(s))=k=n(1)k+1skkank.

Let now N be given and nN be arbitrary. Then we have for |s|<(1ϵ)|aN|, ϵ>0 arbitrary

|log(un(s))|=|k=n(1)k+1skkank|k=n|skkank|k=n(1ϵ)k=(1ϵ)n1ϵ.

Now summing over nN, we obtain

|n=Nlog(un(s))|n=N(1ϵ)n1ϵ<

for all |s|<(1ϵ)|aN|. Hence, we have uniform convergence in that circle; thus the sum of the logarithms is holomorphic, and so is the original product if we plug everything into the exponential function (note that we do have exp(log(z))=z even if z is an arbitrary complex number).

Note that our method of proof was similar to how we proved lemma 5.1. In spite of this, it is not possible to prove the above lemma directly from theorem 5.4 since the corresponding series does not converge if the an are chosen increasing too slowly.

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Proof:

We order (sn)n increasingly according to the modulus |sn| and the standard greater or equal order on the real numbers. We go on to observe that then |sn|, since if it were to remain bounded, there would be an accumulation point according to the Heine–Borel theorem. Also, the sequence is zero only finitely many often (otherwise zero would be an accumulation point). After eliminating the zeroes from the sequence (sn)n we call the remaining sequence (an)n. Let m the number of zeroes in (sn)n. Then due to lemma 5.5, the function

smn=1(1san)ek=1n1(1)k+1skkank

has the required properties.

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Proof:

First, we note that (sn)n does not have an accumulation point, since otherwise f would be the constant zero function by the identity theorem from complex analysis. From theorem 5.6, we obtain that the function g(s):=smn=1(1san)ek=1n1(1)k+1skkank has exactly the zeroes {sn|n} with the right multiplicity, where the sequence (an)n are the nonzero elements of the sequence (sn)n ordered ascendingly with respect to their absolute value and m is the number of zeroes within the sequence (sn)n. We have that f/g has no zeroes and is bounded and hence holomorphic due to Riemann's theorem on resolvable singularities. For, if f/g were unbounded, it would have a singularity at a zero z0 of g. This singularity can not be essential since dividing g by finitely many linear factors would eliminate that singularity. Hence we have a pole, and this would be resolvable by multiplying linear factors to f/g. But then g/f has a zero of the order of that pole, which is not possible since we may eliminate all the zeroes of g/f by writing f=(zz0)lh, h holomorphic and nonzero at z0, where l is the order of the zero of f at z0.

Hence, f/g has a holomorphic logarithm on , which we shall denote by H. This satisfies

zmeH(z)n=1(1zan)ek=1n1(1)k+1zkkank=f(z).

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Proof:

From theorem 5.7 we obtain a function g with zeroes {sn|n} in the right multiplicity. Set f=1/g.

Exercises

The Hadamard factorisation

In this subsection, we strive to factor certain holomorphic functions in a way that makes them even easier to deal with than the Weierstraß factorisation. This is the Hadamard factorisation. It only works for functions satisfying a certain growth estimate, but in fact, many important functions occurring in analytic number theory do satisfy this estimate, and thus that factorisation will give us ways to prove certain theorems about those functions.

In order to prove that we may carry out a Hadamard factorisation, we need some estimates for holomorphic functions as well as some preparatory lemmata.

Estimates for holomorphic functions

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Proof:

Set m:=N(r) and define the function g: by

g(s):={f(s)j=1mR2ssjR(ssj)s{s1,,sm}limtsf(s)j=1mR2tsjR(tsj)otherwise,

where the latter limit exists by developing f into a power series at s and observing that the constant coefficient vanishes. By Riemann's theorem on removable singularities, g is holomorphic. We now have

|g(0)|=|f(0)|j=1mR|sj|,

and if further |s|=R, then |s|R=1 and hence we may multiply that number without change to anything to obtain for j{1,,m}

|R2ssjR(ssj)|=1|s|R|R2ssjR(ssj)|=1|R2ss2sjR2sR2sj|=1|R2ssjR2R2sjs|=1.

Now writing s=σ+it and sj=σj+itj, we obtain on the one hand

ssj=σσj+ttj+i(tσjσtj)

and on the other hand

R2ssj=R2σjσ+tjt+i(tjσσjt)σ2+t2.

Hence,

ssj=R2ssj,

which is why both ssj and R2ssj have the same distance to R2, since R2 lies on the real axis.

Hence, due to the maximum principle, we have

|f(0)|j=1mR|sj|=|g(0)|max|s|=R|g(s)|=max|s|=R|f(s)|.

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Proof:

First, we consider the case s0=0 and f(0)=0. We may write f in its power series form

f(s)=j=1ajsj,sBR(0),

where aj=f(j)(0)j!. If we write BR(0)s=Reiφ and aj=|aj|eφj, we obtain by Euler's formula

(ajs)=|aj|Rjcos(jφ+φj)

and thus

f(s)=j=1|aj|Rjcos(jφ+φj).

Since the latter sum is majorised by the sum

j=1|aj|Rj,

it converges absolutely and uniformly in φ. Hence, by exchanging the order of integration and summation, we obtain

02πf(Reiφ)dφ=0

due to

02πcos(jφ+φj)dφ=[1jsin(jφ+φj)]φ=0φ=2π=0

and further for all n

02πf(Reiφ)cos(nφ+φn)dφ=π|an|Rn

due to

02πcos(jφ+φj)cos(nφ+φn)dφ=πδj,n,

as can be seen using integration by parts twice and 1=sin2+cos2. By monotonicity of the integral, we now have

π|an|Rn02πf(Reiφ)(1+cos(nφ+φn))dφ2πM.

This proves the theorem in the case s0=0=f(0). For the general case, we define

g(s):=f(s+s0)f(s0).

Then s0=0=g(0), hence by the case we already proved

|fn(s0)n!|=|gn(0)n!|2Rnmax|s|=Rg(s)=2Rn(Mf(s0)).

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Further preparations

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Lemma 5.14:

The theorem

Exercises

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